Stats problem that's getting on my nerves.
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Posts: 8
Visited by: 27 users
-tom- Mr FancyPants |
01.06.2008 - 17:12
How would you work out the answer to this: There is a ball pit. 20% of the balls are blue. If you are blindfolded and select 5 balls at random, what are the chances that at least one is blue? Sorry, it seems like a bit of a pointless thread but it's really bothering me. If someone can tell me the answer and how you would find it, then I'd be eternally grateful.
---- "This rudderless world is not shaped my metaphysical forces. It is not God who kills the children. Not fate that butchers them or destiny that feeds them to the dogs. It's us. Only us" Read Watchmen.
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Stalker Lone wanderer |
01.06.2008 - 17:29
Damn, Im to lazy to think now, but there is actually a mathematical furmula for that.... If I fond it ill post it...
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Sunioj |
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-tom- Mr FancyPants |
01.06.2008 - 18:18
It'd be 20% chance if you only tookone ball, but what if you took 5? It can't simply be 100% as most people would initially think.
---- "This rudderless world is not shaped my metaphysical forces. It is not God who kills the children. Not fate that butchers them or destiny that feeds them to the dogs. It's us. Only us" Read Watchmen.
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Buggy Account deleted |
01.06.2008 - 18:56 Buggy
Account deleted
Basically, you have to detract from 100% the probability that none of the balls you took is blue. That is (4/5)^5 = approx. 0.33. So 1-0.33=0.67= 67%
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Lucas Mr. Noise elite |
01.06.2008 - 19:00 Written by -tom- on 01.06.2008 at 17:12 I just had an entire exam about shit like this. That was last week, and seriously, I am completely baffled. (Ok, I failed the test anyway, but still, I should remember this). But let me think for a second... For the record: P = chance P(at least one is blue) = P(a maximum of 4 balls is non-blue) Which can be calculated with a Cumulative Binomial Distribution. So let me get my calculator. Now we should fill in: N = 5 (number of tries) P = 0.8 (chance of succes, i.e. a non-blue ball) X = 4 (the number of succeses, i.e. a non-blue ball) binomcdf(5, 0.8, 4) = 0.67232 So I think the answer you are looking for is 0.67232. But as I said, I am not sure. So don't pin me down on it. EDIT: It comes quite close to Buggy's reasoning, so I guess what I did was the (one of) the right way(s).
---- SLUDGE. DOOM. DEATH. Wait, what? "The reason I'm running for president is because I can't be Bruce Springsteen." - Barack Obama
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Buggy Account deleted |
01.06.2008 - 19:39 Buggy
Account deleted
It was just the long way around The tiny difference in results is merely due to the fact that I used approximation.
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Necrogeddon Born Too Late |
01.06.2008 - 20:17
woooow im so glad i didnt take statistics haha! i dont really get any of it....
---- 'I wish you all had one neck and that I had my hands on it.'
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